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It is a very snoopy question in context. If a stranger asked me I might first find out why they are inquiring in the first place.
Richard Campbell
Legio XX - Alexandria, Virginia
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Gaius Decius Aquilius
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Any language taught in an academic context will never reflect the actual way it is spoken. The textbook on "correct" English is different for British English and American English. Then there are regional differences. My spelling is atrocious and I know it. (I wish RAT had spell check). Part of the reason is I always hated my English teachers. They were always totally humorless overweight middle-aged ladies with short tight curled hair. They hated me back. They used terms like "past-pluperfect tense" which was terminology that was meaningless then and now. No one paid much attention to them, because no ever actually talked like the way they taught. The only ones who got A grades were the high grade point girls. Boys would be bullied if they got A grades. This is matter of enculturation. In my region in US which is very muli-cultural there is a strong pressure(then)on adolecent males to be "macho" a Spanish term of strength. It has a different meaning now outside my region and is associated with certain lifestyles. I do not think I can over-stress the impact of sub-cultural variance and the enculturation process. "Normalization" is culturally dependant, and will reflect it's self in the structure and vocabulary on a regional basis.
When I was a Archaeologist writing used a specific set of terminology and formal structure, but no one spoke that way. At least half the language is slang. Slang is localized, and often to specific to professions and regions. When I was a Police Officer my reports would have gotten me flunkled in any English class, but the writing structure was for a legal system that is built around legality and interpretation of laws. Bad spelling was not a problem. Sentences were long and complex and followed a jargon designed to get around lawyers. Seriously. Stock phrases and sentence structures were used over and over that violated ever rule of grammer "on the books". Since I had a M.A. degree which is rare in state and local American police work, I wound up writing all the grants, crunching the numbers, and writing the Department papers to the local government. I deliberatley used mathematical terms (like muti-variate analysis) they would not understand, but being elected officials in a rural border state, they would never admit they did not know what I was saying. (I checked, and not a singe person on the County Commission had more than a High School degree. A few, not even that.) I counted on an assumption that elected officials will do anything to avoid a situation where they will look stupid. I was right. In a way it was lingustic and sub-cultural blackmail, so we always got our request granted. I am not joking about any of this at all.
I am speaking for my region only, but if you ever vist and are not a native English speaker, I would learn the local slang as fast as I could. Language structuer is important, but not the details like they will teach. Vocabulary is important, but without understanding the use and meaning of slang you will be lost on what people are really saying.
The English teacher that was refered to in the first post would be probably be driven crazy by the way people talk and write in my region, which includes California, Arizona, Nevada, Colorado, New Mexico, and probably most of Oregon, Washington, Wyoming and Montana. New Mexican English is distincty different from Texas English, although they are neighboring states. My region has been referd to as "Californianese" by some linguists.
Ralph
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As an American I have no concept of proper English (according to my British friends :razz: ) But I have to agree with Howard, neither version seems correct.
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Mark Hayes
"The men who once dwelled beneath the crags of Mt Helicon, the broad land of Thespiae now boasts of their courage"
Philiades
"So now I meet my doom. Let me at least sell my life dearly and have a not inglorius end, after some feat of arms that shall come to the ears of generations still unborn"
Hektor, the Iliad
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Actually (in proper English...) "they have left the house in the morning" is a mistake, because a specific time in the past is given and so the simple past has to be used. The present perfect is used for actions that were made in an unspecified instance in the past (I have killed in the past...) or whose effect still applies (Elvis has left the building (and has not returned yet...)).
Macedon
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George C. K.
῾Ηρακλῆος γὰρ ἀνικήτου γένος ἐστέ
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This reminds me of Yul Brynner as the King of Siam: "I am thinking that your Moses will have been a fool!"
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That King and I is one of the most amazing movies ever. Yul was at his best then. A perfect King.
In American English, "in the morning" usually means "tomorrow morning", unless it's also in the context of something this morning, something this afternoon.
"I think it's better to cut the lawn in the morning, but not in mid-afternoon when it's hot."
or
"I'm going to take the dog to the veterinarian in the morning" (Which would usually mean it's afternoon or evening, and the action is to take place the next morning.
English is such a crazy language. I once said in exasperation to an English teacher, "All the rules of English grammar have exceptions, except this one, right?" She smiled and nodded.
M. Demetrius Abicio
(David Wills)
Saepe veritas est dura.
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