01-10-2007, 09:44 PM
Vortigern,
Not sure this statement makes much sense:
"Maybe Celtic was just too difficult for Latin- and Germanic speakers to enter into their vocabulary? I like that explanation better than to conclude that no British were present to speak to the Anglo-Saxons! "
All these languages are part of the Indo-European language groups - why should Celtic be too difficult for an Anglo-Saxon to learn? Surely you aren't suggesting that the Old English weren't clever enough?
As an explanation you may like it -- but that does not mean that it is actually the case.
Paul
Not sure this statement makes much sense:
"Maybe Celtic was just too difficult for Latin- and Germanic speakers to enter into their vocabulary? I like that explanation better than to conclude that no British were present to speak to the Anglo-Saxons! "
All these languages are part of the Indo-European language groups - why should Celtic be too difficult for an Anglo-Saxon to learn? Surely you aren't suggesting that the Old English weren't clever enough?
As an explanation you may like it -- but that does not mean that it is actually the case.
Paul
Paul Mortimer
