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Did the Romans of the 200 BC to 100 AD time period have the technological know-how and resources to grind down a sword? What I mean, is that if they were to find a sword who's blade tip had broken off, could a smith grind down the entirety of the blade to a more proportional but slightly shorter and thinner design, but with the same cross section and distal taper?
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ähm... why not???
they had the technology to grind a proper blade shape out of a forged blank... where is the difference? despite the fact that in most known blade constructions of that timeframe there would be no hard steel "behind" a broken-off tip. but such repaired / shortened swords are well-known from the 3rd century ad