09-29-2012, 02:17 AM
The Romans never adopted the phalanx
I don't think that's entirely correct. They may have used it during the Regal period (i.e. pre-Republic). And I believe the legions occassionally formed a phalanx during the empire. Arrian describes a battle between the Romans and Alans (circa 131 AD) where the former adopted a phalanx formation to repel the heavily-armored cavalry of the latter, IIRC.
Yet, when we jump forward again into the Renaissance, the pike and phalanxes make a brief and triumphant return (an argument could be made that the Scots used them at Falkirk in 1298 under Wallace).
I think you can argue for an even earlier date in the post-Roman west. The Franks at the battle of Tours, 732 AD, formed a kind of phalanx against the Moors.
What gives? How did the Romans send the pike and phalanx into the dustbin for centuries?
And was the pike and phalanx/schiltron/whatever a missing tactic that would have been more effective had armies kept it in use?
Here's my understanding. The armies of the Hellenistic armies had declined in the quality of their cavalry and came to rely more on the phalanx. These inferior armies were no match for the manipular/cohort system of the Romans who also lacked good cavalry for the most part.
As the quality of Roman infantry declined the phalanx formation came back into vogue.
I also invite anyone to correct whatever I've said.
~Theo
I don't think that's entirely correct. They may have used it during the Regal period (i.e. pre-Republic). And I believe the legions occassionally formed a phalanx during the empire. Arrian describes a battle between the Romans and Alans (circa 131 AD) where the former adopted a phalanx formation to repel the heavily-armored cavalry of the latter, IIRC.
Yet, when we jump forward again into the Renaissance, the pike and phalanxes make a brief and triumphant return (an argument could be made that the Scots used them at Falkirk in 1298 under Wallace).
I think you can argue for an even earlier date in the post-Roman west. The Franks at the battle of Tours, 732 AD, formed a kind of phalanx against the Moors.
What gives? How did the Romans send the pike and phalanx into the dustbin for centuries?
And was the pike and phalanx/schiltron/whatever a missing tactic that would have been more effective had armies kept it in use?
Here's my understanding. The armies of the Hellenistic armies had declined in the quality of their cavalry and came to rely more on the phalanx. These inferior armies were no match for the manipular/cohort system of the Romans who also lacked good cavalry for the most part.
As the quality of Roman infantry declined the phalanx formation came back into vogue.
I also invite anyone to correct whatever I've said.
~Theo
Jaime
