Sarmatian/Persian soft kit 1 -100 AD?

[Dain II.]

If European sandals had soles, then why wouldn't European boots?

You have to ask the ancients. Maybe because they had not the same cultural background. Have you any archaeological evidence for boots found in Europe in the relevant periodes with a doubled or multi-layerd soles like we know from roman finds? The boots with soft soles from Achmim-Panopolis, dating to 6th and 7th century, also have upturned toes so what is the argument behind that?

kind regards