Definition of the Iron Age.

[jvrjenivs]

To suddenly change the basis of classification from technology to culture shows a flaw of logic.

Why? In general the classification starts with 'prehistory' and 'history'. Within the prehistory we know the 'stone age' the 'bronze age' and the 'iron age'. What flaw of logic is in there? And we're not going to culture. Culture comes in when we take termilogy as 'Halstatt', 'La Tene', etc into account.