Theory that \'Celts\' are a myth

[Jona Lendering]

I think the arguement is that there was not a body of Iron Age peoples across Europe who identified themselves as a homogenous who were called Celts.

Exactly. The word is first employed by Greek authors who describe a group of people directly north of Marseilles. Their territory expands: to Herodotus, both the Pyrenees and the source of the Danube are in the land of the Celts; to Ephorus, the word means "westerner" or "barbarian", and hence we get Cassius Dio, who uses it as synonym for Germans - the exact opposite of what Caesar says (who distinguishes Gauls/Celts from Germans). In short, the word means everything and therefore nothing.

Use "La Tène" or "Iron Age", I'd say, or use "Celtic languages" while making it clear that you're discussing language, not ethnicity. Frankly, I can't see a reason to use this confusing expression, except the "Celtic" here. :wink: