08-08-2010, 02:12 PM
Not to bring more divisiveness to an already contentious topic, but if Caesar says the "Gauls" were known in there own language as "Celts", why would he not do that if it were not so? It would be so easy to check, and peoples were not so out of touch, because of trade and other contact not to know. Of course he would call the countries by the names in his own language, just as we in America call Germany "Germany", not Deutschland, we call the Nederlands "Holland", etc. But I can't begin to understand his motive, if he's alleged to have called peoples in an area the size of modern France + Belgium by a collective name that didn't exist.
But what do I know?
But what do I know?
M. Demetrius Abicio
(David Wills)
Saepe veritas est dura.
(David Wills)
Saepe veritas est dura.
