04-04-2013, 01:45 PM
I'm currently reading Local Knowledge and Microidentities in the Imperial Greek World and came across an offhand remark about how sandals could not be worn with togas. I confess this was completely new to me. Although no source was given in the book, I'm inclined to believe it because it seems to be meticulously researched and authoritative.
Can anyone shed some light on this? Is this true?
Can anyone shed some light on this? Is this true?
David J. Cord
www.davidcord.com
www.davidcord.com