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How really \'different\' were the Romans?
#1
{This may, indeed have come up before - in which case I would certainly appreciate any links to old threads so I can assess the views made previously}

It derails threads to digress - so I thought I'd ask to keep the discussion separate.....

I've certainly been chided for using modern Confusedhock: /current phrasing, allusions or parallels - and that's just fine. I and others have also been disparaged from using any comparisons if we have military experience; which (see below) may be very short-sighted. I have also seen re-enactors/experimenters dismissed because they have no idea how things were actually done ~2,000 years ago.

I do therefore wonder, because it certainly shapes and often constricts the threads of many discussions, what people actually think...... :?

- There has been no appreciable evolution of humankind in those 2,000 years - in fact there is a good argument that we have devolved more in the last 50 years than evolved in the last 50,000! If I took a child today and sent them back in time to Rome - they would become Roman (and the obverse would be true as well) - there are simply science and technology shifts and therefore cultural experience changes

- Much more, particularly for this sub-forums specific field, I certainly do not find it specious to draw military parallels back to the Roman era - simply because our current military systems are absolutely based upon the Roman ones! When, in the 18thC/post-condotteri horse & musket times, professional nation armies were once more established - it was to the same Greek, Roman & Byzantine texts that we discuss that they looked for inspiration! It is no accident that a French Napoleonic Corps looks almost identical to a Roman Consular Army in construct. Our military structures today have a direct and causal link - and thus there are absolute parallels

- Lastly I offer this, for I had a thought earlier - language shifts. Ancient Greek (as I believe I am correct in saying) has many differences to modern Greek and thus is considered a 'dead language', as is, most definitely, Latin. How can we be sure, if a mere 2,000 years represents a gap that we cannot bridge because it's 'so different', that the language used in those ancient texts has anything like the meanings we ascribe today? Perhaps 'leading' to a Roman means something utterly different to what we use it for today...... Smile

- using a specific example that is close to my heart and which everyone will understand, especially as we talk numbers many times, and has changed in only a few decades - how many is a billion? :wink:


Messages In This Thread
How really \'different\' were the Romans? - by Mark Hygate - 06-27-2014, 03:14 PM
How really \'different\' were the Romans? - by MD - 07-13-2014, 08:36 AM
How really \'different\' were the Romans? - by MD - 07-13-2014, 04:36 PM

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