04-11-2011, 12:38 PM
Hi Oleg,
I'll move this post to the proper section (discussing Roman dress & armour is neither a rule nor an announcement).
This topic has seen much discussion already. Regardless which period you're discussing, uniformity has never been proven. The uniformity that we might see (such as on Trajan's column) is more likely to have been an artistic licence that a realistic representation of the actual situation.
You question about armour is depending on the period. Btween the first decade AD and the mid-3rd century, the answer is probably ýes'. before or after that period, 'no'.
I'll move this post to the proper section (discussing Roman dress & armour is neither a rule nor an announcement).
This topic has seen much discussion already. Regardless which period you're discussing, uniformity has never been proven. The uniformity that we might see (such as on Trajan's column) is more likely to have been an artistic licence that a realistic representation of the actual situation.
You question about armour is depending on the period. Btween the first decade AD and the mid-3rd century, the answer is probably ýes'. before or after that period, 'no'.
Robert Vermaat
MODERATOR
FECTIO Late Romans
THE CAUSE OF WAR MUST BE JUST
(Maurikios-Strategikon, book VIII.2: Maxim 12)
MODERATOR
FECTIO Late Romans
THE CAUSE OF WAR MUST BE JUST
(Maurikios-Strategikon, book VIII.2: Maxim 12)
