12-19-2010, 02:43 PM
If there was no invasion why would the peoples of Britain adopt the tribal names of the continental Germanics? Why would they rename their British tribal areas as (e.g.) East Anglia, Sussex, Wessex for Angles and Saxons?
Why didn't the takeovers of Germanic tribes in the rest of the Western Roman Empire have the same linguistic effect: Franks in Gaul, Visigoths in SW Gaul and Hispania, Suebi in NW Hispania, and Vandals in Africa? Of course these invasions may be just as ficitional as Saxon invasions.
Why didn't the takeovers of Germanic tribes in the rest of the Western Roman Empire have the same linguistic effect: Franks in Gaul, Visigoths in SW Gaul and Hispania, Suebi in NW Hispania, and Vandals in Africa? Of course these invasions may be just as ficitional as Saxon invasions.
