Why did pilate use temple gold to fund the construction of an aqueduct into jerusalem

[Hanny]

Been reading some Josephus lately and found it interesting when a small revolt was started due to Pilate using temple gold to fund the building of an aqueduct to jerusalem.

The  thing I wonder is why would he have to use the Jewish temples money? Being a satellite of the Syrian province, it would seem that roman money would have better been invested instead. 

I just don't understand why he had to use money from the temple at the risk of revolt,  when he could have got a loan or something from Syria or Rome itself?

Is it perhaps because money was needed there and then in those days and to get money all the way from syria or Rome was too hard. Was it just easier to use the money available that was in closer proximity regardless of who owned It?

And that's the other thing. Who was the rightful owner of this temple money? The Jewish priests or the romans who were their overlords?

Pilate constructed a new aqueduct that took water from source to his administrative area, this reduced water for the rest of the city. 

Aqueduct https://aleteia.org/2022/01/01/new-resea...-aqueduct/

Temple funds https://www.monash.edu/arts/philosophica...mple-funds