04-20-2013, 02:33 AM
Here's the situation:
A Roman man (circa 100 BC) gets himself a female slave as a spoil of war. She ends up as his concubine and bares him children, to include sons. Would these sons be considered citizens? Or would he have to free her and marry her first?
A Roman man (circa 100 BC) gets himself a female slave as a spoil of war. She ends up as his concubine and bares him children, to include sons. Would these sons be considered citizens? Or would he have to free her and marry her first?
