Winter Clothing in 1st century AD legionary re-enactment

[Titvs Statilivs Castvs]

People just look at sculpture.....yep no pants 1st C AD. Then you go to the 2nd C and Oh....there are pants. Therefore NO ONE in the 1st C AD EVER wore pants. Please.......

This is of course, as you say, a false conclusion. It isn't proof they were not used. But neither is it proof that they were used. As we don't have proof they were, it might be safest not to use them ourselves, as in that way, one does not contradict the evidence in any possible way. ("Common sense" does not count as evidence by the way.)

Do we have evidence for feminalia (I believe it is with an "i", regardless from the fact that it comes from femen; as the plural of femen would be femines) from before the 1st century AD? If we do, it would be safer to assume, in combination with 2nd century evidence, they were used in the 1st C AD as well. But even then it is not 100% sure.