Question about a Roman name

[diegis]

It seems like we have "ethnic" and "geographic" senses of Get- and Goth- intermingled.

The ancients seem to have believed (wrongly?) that the two peoples (Getae, Gothi) were one and the same.

Well, at least if we look at archeology (Santana de Mures-Cerneahov culture) we see they might be kinda the same. Meaning that culture have a majority of Dacian artifacts. Sure, there are too provinicial Roman influences (coming from Roman Dacia), as well Sarmatian and Germanic ones (but just quite few actually).

I think that in Matthews and Heather book (forgot the name now) if i am not mistake, they said that in what is considered Dacian teritory was never found for ex. that type of houses specific to Central Europe and considered as used by Germanics, and even in Ukrainian steppes the majority of houses are those of Dacian type (i think there was two types).
Same for ceramic is predominantly Dacian

So i do believe Goths and Getae was either one and the same, or Getae was the main component of Gothic conglomerat.

Anyway, this is already a bit off-topic.
I was just wondered why or how a name like Geta-the Getian, appearead in Roman aristocracy