11-29-2011, 04:40 AM
In general that would be a bad modus operandi, I agree. But artistic archaism was a much later phenomenon. This frieze is too early for that to be the case. To assume otherwise is anachronistic thinking.
It wouldn't make sense if the frieze dated to the post-Carthaginian period as the hoplite phalanx was no longer in use anywhere (Greece and Carthage were both conquered in 146 BC). The Macedonian phalanx and Roman manipular legion superceded it completely. Neither of those systems are compatable with the Apis.
The only way I can see that the frieze may date to the Roman period is if it was carved shortly after the Third Punic War as part of a triumphal/trophy display to commermorate the conquest. In which case the frieze would still answer John's question in the affirmative.
~Theo
It wouldn't make sense if the frieze dated to the post-Carthaginian period as the hoplite phalanx was no longer in use anywhere (Greece and Carthage were both conquered in 146 BC). The Macedonian phalanx and Roman manipular legion superceded it completely. Neither of those systems are compatable with the Apis.
The only way I can see that the frieze may date to the Roman period is if it was carved shortly after the Third Punic War as part of a triumphal/trophy display to commermorate the conquest. In which case the frieze would still answer John's question in the affirmative.
~Theo
Jaime
