02-03-2009, 01:15 AM
Hey, thanks for the reply.
You see, I’m doing research for a novel and its set in 220BC in and around Saguntum. I’m attempting to be as authentic as I can and the city of Arse is the main stage. There is very little, if any, writings referring to it as Arse as most of the sources are concerned with post-Roman references.
I know that Arse was an independent city in the Edetani region with a heavy Greek influence at one point. There was a colony called Zacynthos where Arse is, said to have been colonized by people from the island of the same name in the Ionian island group in Greece. Not sure how accurate this is.
I guess I’m using artistic license to stretch some tenuous links with a Persian name to the limits but I’m just teasing it out to see how it plays out.
One theory on the origins of the Iberian peninsula is that they came from the Caucasian Iberians. These Caucasian Iberians might have come from the Levant region in the east and in the Spanish Levant we have Iberians as well. Some say this is where the name Iberia came from as apposed to the river Ebro.
Either way the Phoenicians did settle people in this part of Spain and they would have maintained trade links with all of the Phoenician colonies including Carthage and mother city Tyre. And the Phoenicians were linked to Persia according to Herodotus as early as 529BC when he describes how Cyrus the Great employed Phoenician ships in his army in his conquest of Egypt.
And Persia continued to use the Phoenician Navy until 366BC when, with the Cypriots they broke away from the Empire.
So I guess I’m trying to link the dots (forcibly) with the Greeks who settled in Arse after the Phoenicians who could have had an ‘Arses’ (Arsha)at one stage.
Arses, was the personal name of the Artaxshaca/Artaxerxes/Arsha the 4th , who was the son of Artaxshaca/Artakhshassa/ Artaxerxes the 3rd.
Artaxshaca being (an old Persian) a regal name for the throne, and the Greek form would have been Artaxerxes-Arses(Arsha)
so Arses would be a Greek translation of Arsha
even Xerxes is a greek translation of Xshayârshâ (old Persian)
I’d be more inclined to think that the name came from a Phoenician source but I know its a long shot.
Again, I’m just teasing this idea out. For some reason I got stuck on the Idea and cant seam to shake it off.
Thanks for the replies.
You see, I’m doing research for a novel and its set in 220BC in and around Saguntum. I’m attempting to be as authentic as I can and the city of Arse is the main stage. There is very little, if any, writings referring to it as Arse as most of the sources are concerned with post-Roman references.
I know that Arse was an independent city in the Edetani region with a heavy Greek influence at one point. There was a colony called Zacynthos where Arse is, said to have been colonized by people from the island of the same name in the Ionian island group in Greece. Not sure how accurate this is.
I guess I’m using artistic license to stretch some tenuous links with a Persian name to the limits but I’m just teasing it out to see how it plays out.
One theory on the origins of the Iberian peninsula is that they came from the Caucasian Iberians. These Caucasian Iberians might have come from the Levant region in the east and in the Spanish Levant we have Iberians as well. Some say this is where the name Iberia came from as apposed to the river Ebro.
Either way the Phoenicians did settle people in this part of Spain and they would have maintained trade links with all of the Phoenician colonies including Carthage and mother city Tyre. And the Phoenicians were linked to Persia according to Herodotus as early as 529BC when he describes how Cyrus the Great employed Phoenician ships in his army in his conquest of Egypt.
And Persia continued to use the Phoenician Navy until 366BC when, with the Cypriots they broke away from the Empire.
So I guess I’m trying to link the dots (forcibly) with the Greeks who settled in Arse after the Phoenicians who could have had an ‘Arses’ (Arsha)at one stage.
Arses, was the personal name of the Artaxshaca/Artaxerxes/Arsha the 4th , who was the son of Artaxshaca/Artakhshassa/ Artaxerxes the 3rd.
Artaxshaca being (an old Persian) a regal name for the throne, and the Greek form would have been Artaxerxes-Arses(Arsha)
so Arses would be a Greek translation of Arsha
even Xerxes is a greek translation of Xshayârshâ (old Persian)
I’d be more inclined to think that the name came from a Phoenician source but I know its a long shot.
Again, I’m just teasing this idea out. For some reason I got stuck on the Idea and cant seam to shake it off.
Thanks for the replies.
