Was Bede English?

[sonic]

Shirt and skirt are from the same Old English word.
Matthew

Yes they are, and the difference is because of the introduction of Norse influence during the Viking invasions, not with the French.

I actually think that Bede was English, and so am I. Bede was a descendant of the 'Angles, Saxons, Jutes' etc that arrived in England. His attitudes and perceptions were based upon the fundamental premise that he was English and had inherited this from his forefathers.

I am English. I live in the same country and share the same cultural attitudes and perceptions as passed on by my ancestors, who were English.

If Bede were to return to life he would not understand anything that is happening today. It is also clear that both Bede and myself would be unable to communicate as our language and cultural identity are separated.

However, that identity is shared: my 'Englishness' is a direct inheritance from the time of Bede. Both the invasions of the Vikings and the Normans altered the cultural identity, yet the base identity remained the same. Our rulers, although speaking French after 1066, were still the accepted inheritors of the English kings of the first millenium. Over time they were absorbed by us, not vice versa. King John is not recognised for the important figure he actually was. He was the first Norman ruler to learn English. After his loss of the Angevin territories in France it became clear that French linguistic influence would fade and English be triumphamt.

I would suggest that if this is compared to the Roman empire in the West a similar pattern emerges, leading to the conclusion that the French, the Spanish, the Italians etc., who are speaking 'Romance' languages, are continuing the Roman empire. This is slightly different, however. Over the course of the last 1,500 years their culture and society has been altered by the influx of barbarians to where there are few links to their 'Imperial' past.

Is this a reasonable assumption, or am I biased in favour of the English?