08-26-2010, 05:08 PM
Reading a number of [secondary source] accounts of the run up to Caesars bids for power and the civil wars, there are references to assorted generals bringing their verterans into Rome to vote, as well as to intimidate people.
Is the former reason correct? How were they legally eligible to vote? Could all citizens vote? I ask as I don't recall mention of civilians flocking to Rome from other areas to vote.
cheers,
Is the former reason correct? How were they legally eligible to vote? Could all citizens vote? I ask as I don't recall mention of civilians flocking to Rome from other areas to vote.
cheers,
a.k.a. Simon Frame