RomanArmyTalk

Salvete Omnes

There is a curious statement by Theodore Mommsen to the effect that the Ius Gladii was not exercised by Roman governors of Judea.
Rather a surprising assertion in my opinion considering the well publicized accounts of Jesus and others by Josephus. On the other hand, Mommsen is quite a high calibre historian so I'm wondering what is the basis for his assertion and if there are other opinions that concur with him.

Any input on this? Thanks in advance

Imad

You can read this article:

http://www.jstor.org/pss/299694

Its by Peter Garnsey and very interesting.

There is also still a debate on whether the region of Judaea was ruled from Syria by the governor of Syria and that in Jerusalem only a Procurator or Prefect was stationed.
Pontius pilatus was not a governor there but probably a prefect accoring to the Pilate stone :

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pilate_Stone

M.VIB.M.

The ius gladii was required to execute Roman citizens, but surely it was not required to order the deaths of non-citizens?

Therefore the Praefect of Judea would not require this power to order the execution of Jesus, which would fall within his usual remit of putting down rebellion and disorder.

Wow great article. Thanks for posting.