The English and the Celts - no genocide?

[authun]

I refer to my earlier post today – it cannot be assumed that the british were hit because they traded with the Med and the Germanic speakers were not hit because they did not trade with the Med.

Hi Vortigern,

You seemed to have jumped the gun here. You will see my answer to your original post above.

I agree that, given the dating problems and the problems of exact diagnosis, it cannot be proven. There is nothing unusual about that in history. I simply answer the point that it is not my hypothesis but is one held by others and that it has its merits.

best

Harry Amphlett