06-28-2014, 11:14 AM
Thanks all for some of the other points - but my query is simple...
'Culture' (laws, religious practices, custom and practice) is a background, but admittedly very important, factor - as is nutrition.
But my point is - what are the fundamental differences between a human being 2,000 years ago and now? Does their body work in the same way? Are they capable of the same range of movements. or carrying weights, of wielding weapons? Is there some effect on maths, physics or the functioning of the brain that is different? Has the basic binary nature of brain function and the 'fight or flight' response changed?
If I gave an order to a Roman soldier or a modern soldier - is he expected to carry it out? It doesn't matter whether he's under the threat of death or of a fine and temporary imprisonment, I think he's still supposed to carry out the order.
'Culture'/'Nurture' may have changed, but not the base form. It may affect how the 'base' behaves in context - but it's all taught and experienced.
If, for some reason, 'we' changed - and adopted (as we would be taught by classicists) all the Roman laws, customs, et al - how would that affect actually what we can do or how things like orders are communicated (technology is just a medium)?
If we equip a group of re-enactors with everything we believe a Roman century would have - why could they not be trained to replicate anything we think a Roman century could do? :?
'Culture' (laws, religious practices, custom and practice) is a background, but admittedly very important, factor - as is nutrition.
But my point is - what are the fundamental differences between a human being 2,000 years ago and now? Does their body work in the same way? Are they capable of the same range of movements. or carrying weights, of wielding weapons? Is there some effect on maths, physics or the functioning of the brain that is different? Has the basic binary nature of brain function and the 'fight or flight' response changed?
If I gave an order to a Roman soldier or a modern soldier - is he expected to carry it out? It doesn't matter whether he's under the threat of death or of a fine and temporary imprisonment, I think he's still supposed to carry out the order.
'Culture'/'Nurture' may have changed, but not the base form. It may affect how the 'base' behaves in context - but it's all taught and experienced.
If, for some reason, 'we' changed - and adopted (as we would be taught by classicists) all the Roman laws, customs, et al - how would that affect actually what we can do or how things like orders are communicated (technology is just a medium)?
If we equip a group of re-enactors with everything we believe a Roman century would have - why could they not be trained to replicate anything we think a Roman century could do? :?
