09-02-2013, 11:53 PM
According to John Haywood's "Atlas of World History":
"Macedonia, a country considered by Greeks as a kingdom of barbarians, was inhabited by Illyrians, Thracians and greek Dorians".
There is no agreement as to what was Ancient Macedonian language like. By some scholars considered as similar to Dorian greek dialect, by others as similar to Aeolian greek dialect, by some as a separate dialect of Greek, and by some others as a language distinct from Greek, even if related to Greek.
Another interesting fact is that when in 460 BC king Alexander I of Macedonia wanted to take part in Olympic games, he was initially not allowed to do so: ''ΟΥ ΒΑΡΒΑΡΩΝ ΑΓΩΝΙΣΤΕΟΝ ΕΙΝΑΙ ΤΟΝ ΑΓΩΝΑ, ΑΛΛΑ ΕΛΛΗΝΩΝ'' (in English: "no barbarians can contest the games but [only] Hellenes").
Only later, when he invented a story that his dynasty originated from kings of the Greek city of Argos, they allowed him to participate.
The same article from which I cited the quote above, claims that those who didn't allow him to participate must have been silly, because:
http://users.forthnet.gr/kat/antikas/Chapter16.htm
However, the article is clearly wrong regarding the island of Thasos being supposedly "geographically Macedonian".
As a matter of fact, the island of Thasos was conquered by the kingdom of Macedonia not before the reign of Philip II (359 - 336 BC), while before that, Thasos belonged in some periods to the Athenian Empire and in some periods to other Greek city-states, but not to the kingdom of Macedon.
We must also note, that in the same Olympic games in 460 BC took part - moreover, without any problems similar to those encountered by Macedonian king Alexander I - king of the Greek kingdom of Cyrene, located in what is today Libia (Cyrenaica), Arcesilaus IV of the Battiad dynasty.
This shows, that even African Greeks - who also lived in a monarchy - were considered by Eleans as "more Greek" than people from Macedonia.
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So a possible theory is, that Macedonians (and their language) were initially not identical with Greeks, and only later underwent Hellenisation.
Another possibility is, that language spoken in Macedonia was a strange mix of Illyrian, Thracian and Dorian or Aeolian Greek, rather than "pure" Greek.
What seems to be rather undoubtful, is that [other] Greeks considered Macedonians as somehow "inferior" and "barbarian". Of course this applies only to times before the reign of king Philip II and his heir Alexander III the Great, when Macedonians proved that they were not "inferior" to [other] Greeks.
Regarding Alexander III the Great and his reinforcements from Greek city-states - how did he communicate with them?
Well, I suppose that Alexander - as any educated person in the Greek-influenced world of that time - could speek Koine language fluently:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Koine_Greek
Even various dialects of Greek language were not 100% mutually intelligible, which is why Koine "Lingua" was invented.
However, Koine was not a mother tongue, not a native language, for major part of people who knew it.
Koine Greek in Ancient Mediterranean world, was like English language is today in Europe.
=============================================
What do you think?
What are the most important arguments for and against the "Greekness" of Macedonians?
Etruscans were using Greek alphabet, their military was similar to Greek and their culture was similar - but they were not Greek.
"Macedonia, a country considered by Greeks as a kingdom of barbarians, was inhabited by Illyrians, Thracians and greek Dorians".
There is no agreement as to what was Ancient Macedonian language like. By some scholars considered as similar to Dorian greek dialect, by others as similar to Aeolian greek dialect, by some as a separate dialect of Greek, and by some others as a language distinct from Greek, even if related to Greek.
Another interesting fact is that when in 460 BC king Alexander I of Macedonia wanted to take part in Olympic games, he was initially not allowed to do so: ''ΟΥ ΒΑΡΒΑΡΩΝ ΑΓΩΝΙΣΤΕΟΝ ΕΙΝΑΙ ΤΟΝ ΑΓΩΝΑ, ΑΛΛΑ ΕΛΛΗΝΩΝ'' (in English: "no barbarians can contest the games but [only] Hellenes").
Only later, when he invented a story that his dynasty originated from kings of the Greek city of Argos, they allowed him to participate.
The same article from which I cited the quote above, claims that those who didn't allow him to participate must have been silly, because:
http://users.forthnet.gr/kat/antikas/Chapter16.htm
Quote:The Eleans' objection to Alexander's right to compete as a Greek is hard to understand when we consider the fact that another winner, Theagenes of Thasos, geographically Macedonian, had already won two wreaths in boxing and pankration contests in BC 480 and 476 (see Table 16.II).
However, the article is clearly wrong regarding the island of Thasos being supposedly "geographically Macedonian".
As a matter of fact, the island of Thasos was conquered by the kingdom of Macedonia not before the reign of Philip II (359 - 336 BC), while before that, Thasos belonged in some periods to the Athenian Empire and in some periods to other Greek city-states, but not to the kingdom of Macedon.
We must also note, that in the same Olympic games in 460 BC took part - moreover, without any problems similar to those encountered by Macedonian king Alexander I - king of the Greek kingdom of Cyrene, located in what is today Libia (Cyrenaica), Arcesilaus IV of the Battiad dynasty.
This shows, that even African Greeks - who also lived in a monarchy - were considered by Eleans as "more Greek" than people from Macedonia.
=====================================
So a possible theory is, that Macedonians (and their language) were initially not identical with Greeks, and only later underwent Hellenisation.
Another possibility is, that language spoken in Macedonia was a strange mix of Illyrian, Thracian and Dorian or Aeolian Greek, rather than "pure" Greek.
What seems to be rather undoubtful, is that [other] Greeks considered Macedonians as somehow "inferior" and "barbarian". Of course this applies only to times before the reign of king Philip II and his heir Alexander III the Great, when Macedonians proved that they were not "inferior" to [other] Greeks.
Regarding Alexander III the Great and his reinforcements from Greek city-states - how did he communicate with them?
Well, I suppose that Alexander - as any educated person in the Greek-influenced world of that time - could speek Koine language fluently:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Koine_Greek
Even various dialects of Greek language were not 100% mutually intelligible, which is why Koine "Lingua" was invented.
However, Koine was not a mother tongue, not a native language, for major part of people who knew it.
Koine Greek in Ancient Mediterranean world, was like English language is today in Europe.
=============================================
What do you think?
What are the most important arguments for and against the "Greekness" of Macedonians?
Etruscans were using Greek alphabet, their military was similar to Greek and their culture was similar - but they were not Greek.
