Late Empire provision of swords?

[Robert Vermaat]

The state would have wanted to equip every soldier (infantry and cavalry) with a spatha. In peaceful times, this would not have been a problem. Soldiers would even have spent private money to obtain better weapons. However, in times of crisis this could present a problem. No doubt we all see that, despite obvious stockpiles, after the disaster of Adrianople it may not have been easy to outfit every newly trained unit with a spatha (or body armour etc.).

From the 5th c. onwards, economics are clearly getting worse and we hear of units without proper material, i.e. cavalry units without horses etc. it's comparable to any modern army in the later days of its existance. No doubt one of the reasons that so many Germanis were hired en block (besides money being available and the numbers of the mercenaries) was that they came equipped and ready for action (where instead during the 4th c. we see that such troops were outfitted by the Romans!).

By the 6th c. we hear of lack of equipment being common - maurikios clearly advocates to put the men with body armour in front and behind, therby indicating that it was quite normal for a unit to lack this as common equipment.